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Old 07-14-2020, 05:48 PM
actuaryleaks101 actuaryleaks101 is offline
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Default Actuarial "Blackmail"

This thread is in response to the post quoted below.

Quote:
Originally Posted by twig93 View Post
And the word "blackmail" is very frequently misused among native English speakers, as I said in my post.

And at "casual racism".
I have two questions that I would like to put to the lovely people on this forum.

Q1 Does anyone here think that the Institute of Actuaries legal team also misuse the word "blackmail" to fit their members up with trumped up charges, as punishment for exposing their shortcomings and wrongdoing?

Q2 Would you ever expose wrongdoing by your Actuarial body?

I look forward to the response... Can I request no mudslinging... I actually want to learn peoples views on these two questions.

Thanks in advance
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Old 07-14-2020, 07:11 PM
actuary_truther actuary_truther is offline
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When people believe the professional body sets a standard in all it does, then that professional body can by definition never be in the wrong in those people's eyes, even when found in the wrong by any external bodies such as Courts or regulators. It's a somewhat cult-like mentality and we see a lot of it on this forum but it should be remembered also that shills come here with misinformation just like what happens on the Acted forum.
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Old 07-14-2020, 07:26 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by actuaryleaks101 View Post
Q1 Does anyone here think that the Institute of Actuaries legal team also misuse the word "blackmail" to fit their members up with trumped up charges, as punishment for exposing their shortcomings and wrongdoing?
That is one strange question. In the other thread, the IFoA is accused of "blackmail". Are you now suggesting that the Institute of Actuaries legal team is accusing people of blackmail? If so, you should give links for those accusations, so we could try to decide if "blackmail" is being used correctly.

I know there are differences in usage between the United States and the U.K., but in the US "to fit their members up" is extremely uncommon usage to me, and I don't know how to interpret it.
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Old 07-14-2020, 07:40 PM
actuary_truther actuary_truther is offline
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I think a point to consider here is that if a professional body behaves in that way towards other professional bodies and does not obey rules then far from being something to celebrate by its members it should be something to fear. Since a professional body can persecute a member in disciplinary. Who could be confident such a body would observe rules and fairness in a disciplinary context if that's the disregard they have for proper procedures and gentlemanly conduct? IFoA has already been found to have breached laws and regulations. If that's their attitude then it begs the question whether they are fit to have any regulatory powers of their own.
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Old 07-14-2020, 07:48 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by actuary_truther View Post
I think a point to consider here is that if a professional body behaves in that way towards other professional bodies and does not obey rules then far from being something to celebrate by its members it should be something to fear. Since a professional body can persecute a member in disciplinary. Who could be confident such a body would observe rules and fairness in a disciplinary context if that's the disregard they have for proper procedures and gentlemanly conduct? IFoA has already been found to have breached laws and regulations. If that's their attitude then it begs the question whether they are fit to have any regulatory powers of their own.
That may be a point to consider, but the opening post presents 2 questions, one of which is whether the Institute of Actuaries legal team has misused the word "blackmail". Does "IFoA has already been found to have breached laws and regulations" mean we should think they have misused the word "blackmail" when as far as most of us know they have not even used the word "blackmail"? When and how they used it would be the most important point to consider for answering the question.

As far as I can tell, you haven't attempted to answer his first question.
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Old 07-14-2020, 08:16 PM
actuary_truther actuary_truther is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gandalf View Post
As far as I can tell, you haven't attempted to answer his first question.
It's not clear if a specific situation is being referred to or not but it's still a valid talking point whether a professional body that is accused/found of bad behaviour x,y,z whether they are fit to regulate their members in terms of x,y & z. For example, IFoA were done for racial discrimination so how can they credibly discipline a member who racially discriminates? They don't seem fit to judge.
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Old 07-14-2020, 08:23 PM
actuaryleaks101 actuaryleaks101 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gandalf View Post
Are you now suggesting that the Institute of Actuaries legal team is accusing people of blackmail? If so, you should give links for those accusations, so we could try to decide if "blackmail" is being used correctly.
I can neither confirm or deny. However I am asking this question in the hypothetical sense. You can define "blackmail" as it is in US or UK law.
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Old 07-14-2020, 08:40 PM
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I can neither confirm or deny. However I am asking this question in the hypothetical sense. You can define "blackmail" as it is in US or UK law.
In the hypothetical sense? That's an incredibly stupid statement. The question asks if they misuse the word "blackmail". Would a "yes" answer mean "if they had used the word "blackmail", which as far as we know they didn't, it would be a misuse"?

Then the first post even attributes a rationale to that hypothetical use of "blackmail", even though I still have no clue what you are trying to mean with
"to fit their members up with trumped up charges".
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Old 07-14-2020, 09:35 PM
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How many different accounts and threads do we need with this stuff? I mean it's one guy that can't pass actuarial exams.
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Old 07-14-2020, 09:45 PM
actuaryleaks101 actuaryleaks101 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gandalf View Post
In the hypothetical sense? That's an incredibly stupid statement. The question asks if they misuse the word "blackmail". Would a "yes" answer mean "if they had used the word "blackmail", which as far as we know they didn't, it would be a misuse"?

Then the first post even attributes a rationale to that hypothetical use of "blackmail", even though I still have no clue what you are trying to mean with
"to fit their members up with trumped up charges".
Well let me rephrase Q1.
Do you think that the Institute or Faculty of Actuaries would accuse any of their members, of "blackmail", or even worse, set their members up to be accused of "blackmail", in order to punish them for exposing the the Institutes wrongdoing?
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